Has the Bible been corrupted as the Muslims assert?

 

The Bible has been changed is the common assertion of the Muslim. This assertion that the Bible as we now have it has been corrupted(muharraf) is pursued by St. Clair Tisdall in the style of argument presented in the form of a conversation between a Muslim and a Christian.

Introduction

"How I do pity you Christians!" said a Mullah to a missionary, "you have no Holy Book now" The implication of this is that the Mullah believed that the Old and New Testaments as we now have them are corrupted, and are therefore unworthy of consideration. At one time this opinion was firmly held by all Muslims, and it is still the general conviction of Muslims in all lands. In proof of this they assert that the Quran states that the Bible has been rendered tahrif (muharraf). Others declare that, on His Ascension, our Lord carried off the New Testament with Him into heaven. Hence it logically follows, they argue that the Gospel which Christians now have cannot be the original one which descended (from heaven) upon Jesus, the Son of Mary. In reply it may be said

1) The Quran nowhere states that Jesus took the Gospel up to Heaven with Him, nor does any reliable tradition, this element therefore rests upon nothing but your mere assertion, and as you were not present at the time you cannot give evidence

2) The Gospel that the Lord Jesus preached and taught by His whole life was not fully written down then, just as the Quran was not collected into a fixed form until after Mohammad’s death. To say that the Gospel was carried off to heaven is therefore absurd. The All-wise God surely knows that men are on earth not in the heavens: hence He would not make such a mistake as to send the Gospel up to the sky and leave men, for whose guidance it was sent, on the earth. At any rate, the Quran shows that it was still on the earth in Muhammad’s time; else the Quran would not have appealed to it so frequently.

3) Just as Muhammad's disciples remembered his words and so the Quran was afterwards put together by Zaid ibn Thabit, so the Gospel in its four forms was written down after and not before Christ's Ascension.

4) The meaning of Gospel is good news and this is contained in an epitome in John 3:16

5) We are glad to know that Muslims confess that the Gospel “descended on Jesus” and the Quran states that it was given by God "for a light and a guidance to men."(Surah 5, Al Maidah)

Turning now to the assertion that the Bible as we now have it has been corrupted (muharraf); the following is in the style of argument presented  between a Muslim and a Christian.

Christian

When was the Bible corrupted? Before Muhammad's time, or after it?

Muslim

Before it.

Christian

You cannot really mean that, for you are a Muslim, and to assert that the Bible was corrupted before Muhammad's time is to accuse Muhammad of being a false teacher, and to state that the Quran is untrue and a forgery, which is just what the idolatrous Arabs in Muhammad's time did.

Muslim

How so?

Christian

Because the Quran which Mohammad claimed to have received from God through the archangel Gabriel, asserts the authority and genuineness of the Bible which was then in circulation among the Jews and Christians, and declares that the Quran itself was sent down as being "confirmatory of previous Scripture, and its safeguard” (Surah 5 Al Maidah: 52) Now, if the Bible had been corrupted before his time, Muhammad must have been, knowingly or ignorantly leading people who believed in him astray. If the Quran thus confirms a corrupted book, how can you believe that your Quran has come from the All-knowing God?

Muslim

But you Christians do not accept the Quran and therefore have no right to quote its evidence in defence of your own books. If you do not believe in it, why do you rely on it as a proof of the genuineness of your Bible?

Christian

We do not rely on its testimony, but you do; and as you will not accept any other proof, we adduce proofs that you must accept, if you are Muslims. Your statement that the Bible was corrupted before Muhammad's time is contrary to the statements of the Quran .Which are we to believe?

Muslim

The Quran does not state that the Bible existed uncorrupted in Muhammad's time.

Christian

Then will you kindly explain the meaning of the following, among many other passages that might be quoted:

  1. Surah 10 Yunus 94.

  2. Surah 5, Al Maidah: 47, 50, 51, 52, 70.72.

  3. Surah 4, An Nisa: 50,135

  4. Surah 7, Al Araf: 168.

  5. Surah 3, Al Imran: 78.-

  6. Surah 2, Al Baqarah: 70

  7. Surah 21, Al Anbiya: 49.

These verses teach us that the Taurat and Injil were then in the hands of the People of the Book, that they had been sent down by God, and that they were carefully studied. The Bible is called the Word of God, and the Law is also distinguished by the title Furqan which you deem the highest title of the Quran itself. Is this consonant with your assertion that the Bible had been corrupted before Mohammad’s time? If so, why does the Quran represent Muhammad as commanded to tell the People of the Book to accept the Quran because it confirmed “ what was in their hands” Why is he directed to bid the Muslims believe in the “previous books” (the Taurat and Injil ) as well as in the Quran ? Why are rewards promised to “the People of the Book" if they continue to obey the Book?

Why are they warned that their hopes are founded upon nothing unless they do so? Why are the People of the Gospel bidden to judge Mohammad’s claims by God's revelation contained in the Gospel if it has already been corrupted? You must see that, by attacking the Bible as it existed in Muhammad's days, you do it no harm but are really overthrowing your own faith in the Quran and in Muhammad.

Muslim

But the Quran itself tells us that the Law at least had been corrupted before Muhammad's time as it is said, for example, in the following passages;

  1. Surah 2, Al Baqarah, 39,56,70,73,141.

  2. Surah 7, Al Araf: 162.

  3. Surah 5, Al Maidah: 45.

  4. Surah 4, An Nisa: 48.

  5. Surah 3 Al Imran: 64

Christian

Surah 3, Al Imran: 64 and Surah 2:39 prove that the Jews then had the Taurat in an uncorrupted state in their hands else, how does the Quran say “they transcribe the Book”? Or how could they “know and conceal the truth” if the Taurat had already been corrupted? For corrupted truth is truth no longer, but falsehood. Or how could they “clothe the truth with falsehood” or “sell it for a small price” or even “transpose the words (or letters) in their places” if they no longer had the Taurat in an uncorrupted state? These passages therefore fail to prove your assertion; in fact they prove the very opposite.

The first two passages you quote inform us that in Moses’ time certain impious Jews mispronounced a word which God had spoken, and thereby changed its meaning, for which they were at once punished. But even these men are not charged with corrupting the Book. When it is twice said that certain Jews in Muhammad's time (not before his time) used to “shift the words from their places” such a charge is never brought against the Christians. So that, even if we admit that this expression means what you take it to mean it relates only to the Law and not to the Gospel. But leading Islamic commentators say that the meaning is that on certain occasions the Jews denied that certain commands were to be found in the Taurat though they well knew they that they were there. As an example a tradition is quoted that at Khaibar the Jews, when asked whether the Taurat did not command the stoning of adulterers, denied it, though the command to that effect is still in the Taurat, as they knew it was.

But they are not accused of changing the text and the occurrence of the verses in question in the Taurat which they and we still have proves that they did not strike them out. This explanation agrees with what other passages in the Quran say about the sin of the Jews in concealing the truth while they knew it. Or, as Ar Razi says,” they perverted the reading with their tongues" (Surah: 3, Al Imran: 72) not the actual text. Another explanation which Ar Razi gives is that the Jews used to ask Muhammad questions and then falsely report his reply. If so, it was not the words of the Taurat but Muhammad's words that they are accused of “shifting from their places” Hence we see that the Quran does not state that the Scriptures were corrupted before Muhammad's time.

Muslim

Well then, if the Bible was not corrupted before Muhammad's time, it was certainly corrupted in his time, as some of the verses I have quoted prove.

Christian

In saying this you contradict your leading commentators and your controversy is with them, not with me. Besides, you must remember that the Quran asserts that it was “sent down to attest the Scriptures preceding it and to act as guardian to them“(Surah 2, Al Baqarah, 38; Surah 4, An Nisa: 50; Surah 5, Al Maidah: 50; Surah 3, Al Imran: 75)

It is strange for a Muslim to accuse the Quran of attesting corrupted Scriptures and still stranger for him to assert that the guardianship of the Quran was of no avail to hinder their corruption even in Muhammad's own time.

Muslim

By “attesting the Scriptures which preceded it“ is meant that the Quran agrees with the genuine teaching of previous prophets, and shows the fulfilment of the prophecies regarding Muhammad contained in their books, that is to say, in the Taurat and Injil by preserving such doctrines the Quran acts as a guardian to those books.

Christian

Such is your explanation. But if the Quran, as we have seen, attested the Scriptures which in Muhammad's day were extant in the hands of Jews and Christians, and was constituted their guardian surely you cannot hold that those Scriptures were at that very time corrupted or had previously been so. And, if the Quran then appealed to certain passages in the Bible as it then existed in proof of Muhammad's claim to be a prophet does not that show that in Muhammad's time the Bible was not corrupt?

Muslim

Well then, if the Scriptures were not corrupted before Muhammad's time, or in his days, they must have been corrupted since that time, for they are corrupt, as everybody knows, because they used to agree with the Quran and no longer do so. The Quran appeals to its agreement with the Bible as one of the proofs of its inspiration; that is one meaning of several of the verses which you have quoted. This it would not have done if the Bible had then been what it now is, since it now contradicts the Quran in many important points and this is the reason why we cannot accept your Bible.

Christian

Let us inquire in the first place whether it is possible on the supposition that the Quran is a Divine Revelation, to believe that the Bible has been corrupted since Muhammad's time, remembering that, according to the Quran, one reason for the “descent” of that book and for Muhammad's mission was to confirm the Law and the Gospel. The Quran itself asserts that God preserves the “Warning” which He has sent down (Surah 15, Al Hajr: 9) and moreover repeatedly affirms that the Word of God cannot be altered by any one (Surah 69.Al Kahf: 26; 6, Anam: 35,115; 10, Yunnus: 65).

Muslim

But “the Warning” is one of the titles of the Quran itself, and these verses all refer to the Quran and not to the Bible. We are quite ready to admit that the Quran cannot be changed.

Christian

No doubt “the Warning“" is sometimes a title of the Quran, but the same title is also, in the Quran itself, given to the Bible, as for instance in Surah 21, Al Anbiya: 7 and 49) and it therefore no more belongs exclusively to the Quran than the title "Al Furqan” does, which in the latter verse is bestowed upon the Taurat which we are there told was given to Moses and Aaron. If we take the promise in Surah 15, Al Hajr: 9 as applying to the Bible as well as the Quran, we find that it agrees with Surah 5, Al Maidah: 52, where we are told that the Quran is a safeguard to the Bible.

But in any case the statement that none can change the Word of God is general and not particular and it applies quite as much therefore to the Bible as to the Quran, since in Surah 2, Al Baqarah,:70 the Bible is called God’s Word. This is the logical conclusion from the verses of the Quran which I have quoted. Hence, if the Quran's statements are worthy of credence, it follows that the Bible, being God's Word cannot have become corrupted. In this matter the Quran is in complete accord with the Bible (compare Isaiah 40:8; 1Peter 1:24; Matthew 5:18; Luke 16:17 Matthew 24:35; Mark 13:31; Luke 21:33) and you Muslims, although doubting many parts of the Bible, hold that its teaching is to be accepted when it is in accord with the Quran.

Muslim

Have you no better answer than this to give to the universal assertion of all Muslims that your Scriptures have been corrupted?

Christian

It is by no means correct to say that all Muslims hold that the Bible has been corrupted. Among ancient commentators Imam Muhammad Ismail Bukhari, and Imam Fakhruddin Razi and others, were of opinion that it was not corrupted. But even if all Muslims did agree in asserting the corruption of the Bible, mere assertion is not proof, and we wait in vain for your proofs. Even a well-supported tradition (Hadith) is not deemed by learned Muslims worthy of acceptance if it is contrary to the Quran and this assertion of the corruption of the Bible is contrary to it.

Muslim

Apart from the Quran, which you do not accept, what evidence have you that the Bible has not been corrupted since Muhammad's time?

Christian

We have in abundance both the kinds of evidence which you Muslims consider admissible both 1) “aqli”- evidence from Reason and 2) naqli - evidence based upon Testimony. I shall briefly mention a few proofs of each kind.

Commencing with Aqli evidence ….…. What possible object would either Jews or Christians have had in endeavouring to corrupt their own Scriptures? In Revelation 21: 18, 19, a terrible penalty is denounced upon those who add to or take away anything from God's Book. The Jews also were commanded to avoid this sin (Deuteronomy 4:2, 12:32; Proverbs 30:5, 6). By corrupting their own Scriptures and still continuing to believe in them (if that were possible), or at least to hand them down to their descendants as God's Word, the People of the Book would be destroying both themselves and their children, and that too without any hope of gain. Moreover, long before Muhammad's time the Jews were in the habit of numbering even the words and letters of their Holy Books, and this they still do. How then can they be accused of corrupting them?

Muslim

Their object in altering the Old Testament, and that of Christians in corrupting the New was doubtless to strike out all prophecies relating to Muhammad.

Christian

Why? What did they hope to gain by doing so? If such prophecies were to be found in the Bible, why did they not accept Muhammad? By becoming Muslims they would have shared in the spoils promised to the Muslims, and given to them when they conquered and plundered Persia, Syria, Palestine, Egypt, and many other countries. They must have been tempted to insert prophecies of Muhammad rather than to eliminate them. By becoming Muslims they would have escaped from persecution, from slaughter at Muhammad's hands, and from all the suffering which has ever since been the lot of zimmis.

Why should they, by striking out such prophecies (if any existed), have doomed themselves and their children to sufferings here and hereafter? But you Muslims answer your own charge against both Jews and Christians by asserting that both in the Old and in the New Testament as they at present exist there are still to be found many clear prophecies of Muhammad's coming. If so many have been left in, why do you accuse us of striking out a few?

Muslim

Another reason was to insert passages in support of the false doctrines and evil practice that you had adopted, and to strike out those which were contrary to them.

Christian

How can that be, when the Taurat and Injil as they exist at present so distinctly forbid man practices THAT oppose many doctrines held by some Jews and Christians? For instance, the Jews are noted for usury, which is forbidden (Exodus 22:25; Leviticus: 25: 35-37) so too, idolatry is forbidden to Christians (Revelation 21:8), yet, if any misguided Christians practise and justify it, they do not try to alter the Bible which so severely condemns idolaters.

Muslim

Let me hear your other proofs.

Christian

The Jews and Christians could not have altered their Scriptures in or after Muhammad’s time, even had they all been seized with madness and desired to do so for they were already spread over a large part of the world, and could not meet together to agree upon corrupting the Bible. Had they altered it without collusion, their alterations would have differed from one another and been readily detected. Both Christians and Jews were then to be found in every part of Europe, in India, Persia, Mesopotamia, Armenia, Asia Minor, Syria, Palestine, Arabia, Ethiopia, Egypt, and throughout the whole of the north of Africa. Jews and Christians were hostile to one another, and, if either party had endeavoured to alter the text of the Bible, the other party would have detected and exposed the crime by producing the original. Yet the Jews have always accepted the same Hebrew Old Testament as that which we do, and all Christians accept the same Greek New Testament.

Moreover, then as now Christians were divided into many sects, as the Quran testifies (Surah 5, Al Maidah: 17), which often oppressed one another. It was obviously impossible for them therefore to conspire together to corrupt the Bible. You will in some measure understand this when you consider whether or not it would be possible for the Muslims (Sunni’s. Shiites, Wahhabis, and all their other sects) to agree together to corrupt the text of the Quran, and to accept the corrupted form of the book.

Again, the Quran informs us (Surah 3, Al Imran: 109,110) that "Among the People of the Book is an upright folk . . . and these are of the righteous." If so, they would not have permitted, without a protest, such a crime as the corrupting of the Holy Scriptures. Is this statement of the Quran true or false? If true, is not your assertion impossible?

In Muhammad's time, and later, not a few Jews and Christians, in many different lands which were conquered by the Muslims, embraced Islam through fear or for other reasons. If the Jews and Christians had conspired together to corrupt the Bible, surely some of these converts would have been able to produce unaltered copies of the Holy Books wherewith to convict the perpetrators of their crime. Yet neither in ancient times nor at present do we hear of a single such copy having been brought forward. The Kitabu’l Aghani relates of Waraqah ibn Naufal (who had once been for a time a Christian, and who knew both the Christian and the Jewish Scriptures, at least to some extent) that in Muhammad's lifetime he used to copy from the Gospel whatever he pleased. He at least would have been able to prove the corruption of the Scriptures, had it occurred in his time. But he brought no such charge against either Jews or Christians.

Therefore from the aqli part of evidence on the subject it follows that the Scriptures cannot have been corrupted after Muhammad's time; and we have previously proved that they cannot have been corrupted in or before his time. We conclude therefore that they are still uncorrupted.

Muslim

Well, what are your (naqli) proofs? - Evidence based on testimony

Christian

There are many but it will be sufficient to adduce only a few of the chief of them, any one of which by itself is a sufficient refutation of the charge which you bring against us.

We possess a number of Greek manuscript copies of the Bible, which were copied from still earlier manuscripts long before Mohammad’s time. It is from these that the printed Greek text of both the Old and New Testaments is taken. This enables us to know what the text of the Bible was in the hands of the Christians of Muhammad's day, and to prove that it was the same Bible that we now have. These old MSS. may be seen by any of you who wish to examine them. The principal of these manuscripts are.

1) The Sinaitic (Codex Sinaitucus), written in the middle of the fourth century, about 270 years before the Hijrah of Muhammad. It contains the whole of the New Testament and a large part of the Old and is preserved in the British Museum, London.

2) The Alexandrian (Codex Alexandrius) written early in the fifth century, more than 200 years before the Hijrah. It contains the whole Bible, except a few pages that have been lost, and is in the British Museum, London.

3) The Vatican (Codex Vaticanus) written early in the fourth century, nearly 300 years before the Hijrah. It contains the whole Bible, though the latter part of the New Testament (from Hebrews. 9::14} is written in a later hand, and is in the Vatican Library at Rome.

4) Codex Ephriemi written early in the fifth century or about 200 years before the Hijrah. It is fragmentary, and contains pages from each book of the New Testament and fragments of the Old. It is kept in the National Library at Paris.

Muslim

How do you know that these manuscripts are as ancient as you say they are? What proofs have you that they were not written in quite recent times? How could paper last all these centuries?

Christian

All these old manuscripts are written on parchment, not on paper, and their great age is evident at a glance. This also accounts for the loss of some pages from some of them. They are written in very old Greek characters (Unicals) which are different from later Greek writing (Cursive) as is the modern Arabic character different from the ancient Cufic, which we find on old coins. Scholars have made a special study of this; and it is well known that the Modern Greek writing itself, which is far more recent, came into use before Muhammad's time. Scholarly believers and unbelievers alike, are agreed as to the fact that these manuscripts were written not later than the dates which I have mentioned (in the text or notes), though it is acknowledged that some of them may be still more ancient than I have said. We have plenty of other MSS. dating from about Muhammad's time and onward, the writing of which is quite different.

Muslim

You have said nothing about the Hebrew Old Testament.

We have no manuscripts of the Hebrew text which is as ancient as the Greek ones mentioned above, but we know from Josephus and other historians that the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint) was made from the Hebrew between 250 and 200 years before Christ, that is between 872 and 822, many years before the Hijrah, and every one knows that a translation must be more recent than the original from which it is made. We have also other translations of the Old Testament made centuries before Muhammad’s time, and of these I shall soon speak. Besides this, we have the Samaritan Pentateuch in Hebrew, but in very ancient characters. This was preserved by the Samaritans, enemies of the Jews, from the time of the Babylonian Captivity under Nebuchadnezzar. The modern Samaritans still keep it safe, and have even an ancient translation (The Samaritan Targum) of it in a later form of their own spoken language, that is to say, into the language they used to speak hundreds of years before they learned to speak Arabic.

Muslim

Have you any other proof that the Bible has not been corrupted since Muhammad's time?

Christian

Our second proof is afforded by the existence of versions of the Bible which were made ages before Muhammad's birth. These languages have long ceased to be spoken. We have the translations of the Bible into them. The principal of these ancient versions are:

(1) The Septuagint (Greek), which I have already mentioned.

(2) Three versions of the New Testament and one of the Old into Syriac. Of these, two are of especial value. The first of these is called the Curetonian from the name of the discoverer of the ancient manuscript which contains it. This version was made at its latest in the second century after Christ the manuscript was written in the fifth century. The second is the Peshitta, made at its latest in the third century: the oldest manuscript which we have was written in the fifth century. Even the third, or the Philoxenian version, was made long before Mohammad’s time, in 508 A.D.

(3) Three Coptic versions: the Buhairic, made in the second or third century; the Sahidic, and the Bashmuric or Middle Egyptian, both probably of the same date. These three Coptic versions are in the three chief dialects of ancient Egypt.

(4) Two Latin versions; one the Old Latin, made in the second century. We have manuscripts of its remains which date from the fourth and fifth centuries. The other is the Vulgate, a more correct translation made by Jerome A.D. 383-5 He translated the Old Testament from the Hebrew, whereas the Old Latin was translated from the Greek version. The oldest manuscript Vulgate was written before A.D. 546.

(5) The Ancient Armenian, was made by Mesrob and published in A.D.436 just 186 years before the Hijrah

(6) The Gothic, made by Ulphilas, who died in A.D.381. The manuscripts of it date from the fifth to the middle of the sixth century.

(7) The Ethiopic, made by Frumentius in the fourth century

(8) Several Aramaic versions of the Old Testament made by Jews in the second and third centuries. The Targum of Onkelos being the most famous of these which dates from the end of the third century.

Muslim

How do you know all these dates?

Christian

From history in many cases, and in others from finding quotations from these versions in writers who lived at the periods we have mentioned. No one can quote a book before written.

Muslim

Have you any further proofs?

Christian

Only two more that need be mentioned. One, the third proof, is that we have a vast number of verses quoted from the Bible in the works of early Greek, Latin, Syrian, and even Armenian writers, all of who lived before Muhammad's time, and whose dates are perfectly well known. These quotations are so numerous that we could reconstruct nearly the whole New Testament and much of the Old from them, if we had lost all our ancient manuscripts and versions

The fourth proof is afforded by ancient catalogues of the books of the Old and New Testaments. Six of these, all drawn up before Muhammad's time and some many centuries before him, contain the names of all the books of the Bible that we now have. The most ancient of all, the Muratorian Fragment on the Canon, is torn at both ends, but it contains just the same list of books that our present Bibles do. It dates from the second century.

Muslim

You Christians seem to have taken a lot of trouble in order to refute our objections.

No amount of trouble would be too much to take in order to remove the prejudices which prevent men, for whom Christ died, from coming to Him for salvation. But it was not to refute Muslim objections that we made all these investigations and many more. We made them, in the first place, to satisfy ourselves lest we should have been led astray in religion. We did not wish to be in any uncertainty about the Bible, upon which our religion is founded; and we are told in the Bible to “Prove all things; hold fast that which is good “.(1Thess a lonians 5:21)

Muslim

But your ancient manuscripts and versions differ from one another so much that you have thousands of different readings in your Bibles. How can you be sure which is correct?

Christian

That shows how carefully we have collated manuscript with manuscript and version with version, noting even the varied spelling of the same word in different manuscripts. But the result of all our investigations is that all the varied readings put together do not alter or render doubtful one single article in our creed.

Muslim

How do you account for these various readings? Do they not prove that attempts were made to corrupt the text of the Bible?

Christian

Not at all; for, as I have said, they have not altered one single doctrine or one single precept given in the Bible. The variety of readings arose in different ways. The most usual cause was a mistake of the copyist, who often wrote from dictation. Another reason was that certain words were sometimes written and spelled in one way, sometimes in another. Occasionally also, when a note was written in the margin of a manuscript a later scribe in one or two instances mistook it for a passage that had been omitted by mistake, and inserted it in the text of the copy he made. But as we have so many copies we are easily able to detect such mistakes, and distinguish the few verses which are at all doubtful.

Muslim

If the Bible is really inspired, why should it contain all these variations and discrepancies? Surely God would ensure that in an inspired book there should be nothing to present difficulties to an inquiring mind.

Christian

Very often what appear to us to be discrepancies are not really such. If we knew all the facts of the case, we should see that there is no discrepancy at all in the matter. The doubtful passages also are few, and all taken together do not affect one doctrine of the Christian faith. The fact of the existence of so many earnest Christians in all ages since the ascension of Christ shows that these difficulties have not prevented true and earnest inquirers from becoming Christians. These very difficulties are doubtless useful as a test to our earnestness

Muslim

What a blessing it is that in our Quran there are no such doubtful verses as are found in the Bible!

Christian

If you will not be offended I shall show you that, whereas there is practically no doubt about the text of our Bible, it is certain from tradition that the text of your Quran is very far from reliable.

Muslim

Prove it, if you can: I shall not be offended.

Christian

Muslim, the Traditionalist in the Kitabu’z zakat tells us that, since Uthman’s revision of the Quran, some verses which once formed part of the book are no longer found in it. He says, for example, that at Basrah, Abu Musa Ashari said to 500 reciters of the Quran, “Verily we used to recite a Surah which, in length and sharpness, we used to compare with an arrow. I have forgotten it, except that I have preserved from it the words…….. . . . And we used to recite a Surah which we used to compare with one of the Sabuhat and I have forgotten it except that I have preserved from it the words “0 ye who……”

In the Kitabu’r Riza, Muslim quotes from 'Ayishah a tradition that the verse on Giving Suck was known at the time of Muhammad's death; but it is no longer found in the Quran.

In the Kitabu’l Hudud, Muslim proves that the verse on Stoning once occurred in the Quran and 'Umar was so firmly convinced of this that, according to Abu Daud he swore by God that he would have caused it to be entered in that volume, had he not feared lest men should accuse him of adding something to it. According to Ibn Majah (Abwabun Nikah) Ayishah affirmed that two verses, one of which was this very verse on Stoning, met with a strange fate. She says that they were duly revealed and written out, and that the manuscript was placed under her bed; but that when Muhammad died and all his wives and friends were busy in consequence, some tame animal (probably a goat) came in and ate it, and so these verses perished!

Again, the Shi’ite accuses 'Uthman of intentionally eliminating from the Quran all passages relating to Ali.

The Ainul Hayat affirms that Surah 33 Al Ahzab was originally longer than Surah 2. Al Baqarah, but was afterwards corrupted by the omission of many verses.

It is not we Christians who say these things, but some of you Muslims.

Muslim

Such statements are unworthy of credit, for they rest upon unreliable traditions.

Christian

It is too difficult a task for me to decide between your traditions which are reliable, which doubtful, and which false but fortunately the text of the Bible does not rest upon tradition but upon manuscript authority.

Muslim

Produce the original manuscript of your Taurat and Injil, written by the hands of Moses and Jesus upon whom they descended, and we shall at once admit that your Bible has not been corrupted.

Christian

Before asking us to do that, you should produce the original manuscript of the Quran, written by Muhammad, upon whom you assert that it descended

Muslim

At least we have no various readings in our glorious Quran, as you have in the Bible.

Christian

You have not so many, though it would be easy to point out a few, but as the text of your Quran is so much more recent than that of the Bible, as it forms a book so much smaller, and as it rests entirely upon the authority of a single manuscript it is not strange that you have so few various readings. In the Mishkatul Masabih chapter 3 we are informed that, by the command of the Khalifah Abu Bakr, the Quran was “collected " by Zaid ibn Thabit "from palm leaves and stones and from the breasts of those who had learned off by heart" portions of the supposed revelation. This took place in A.H. 14 Abu Bakr kept the manuscript until he died, and then "Umar took possession of it this is what Al Bukhari says. Afterwards it came into the possession of Hafsah, one of Muhammad's widows. But so many copies with different readings and so many discordant forms of certain Surahs were repeated by men who had leamt them off by heart (the Hafizun), that Uthman some years later caused Zaid with the assistance of three others to make fresh copies of Hafsah's manuscript, and, sending these to be kept in different places, compelled those who possessed other copies to give them up to be burnt. Some resisted, but in vain. That the new edition of the Quran thus published differed from the first edition seems probable from the fact that, as Qustalanil says, after Hafsah's death her copy was torn in pieces by Mirwan, governor of Medina under Mu'awiyyah.

The burning of all other copies shows that serious variations had already found an entrance into the text, and this drastic remedy prevents us from comparing ancient copies with one another. What Muslim (Kitab Fazaiilul Quran) and others tell us about the “Seven Readings” readings prevalent even in Muhammad's time points in the same direction. Muslims assure us that these were merely differences in pronunciation but this may well be doubted, for in the same book Muslim tells us that Umar bin al Khattab was so much offended at the way in which Hisham bin Hakim recited Surah 25 Al Furqan, that he took him by the cloak and brought him to Muhammad to complain of it. After hearing both men repeat the Surah, Muhammad declared that both were right, and asserted that the “Seven Readings“ were all alike admissible ! But according to Nisai, certain words (letters - haruf) occurred in Hisham’s version which was not in what others professed to have learned from Mohammad.

Ubai is represented by Nisai as saying that the fact that others repeated verses in a form different from that in which he had learnt them gave him quite a shock. If our leading men had burnt all the ancient manuscripts of the Bible and compelled all copies to be made from one which they had caused to be written, we too should have but few varied readings in our Bible, but all scholars would recognise that no reliance whatever would be able to be placed upon the text thus produced.

(The Bishop of Lahore writes: "I used to find the following illustration effective. S uppose a master dictates a piece of prose to ten scholars. Probably in each copy there will be one or more mistakes. But these are easily corrected by comparison with the other copies, since the same mistake will not be made by many. If, however, all copies are destroyed but one, there will be no admitted various readings, for no standard of comparison exists: at the same time all proof of accuracy is gone. So we see that, the larger is the number of copies preserved, the larger will be the number of various readings, yet the greater the certainty as to the text, though this seems a paradox!")

Muslim

Why do the different translations of the Bible which you now make into so many languages differ so much from one another? Why are you continually correcting and re-correcting these versions if your original text is not corrupt?

Christian

They do not differ from one another to any extent, as you may see from comparing them one another. We find that in some instances the earliest translators either used words not generally understood, or, from not knowing the vernacular languages as well as they are now known, did not make quite perfect translations. Hence we endeavour to perfect them, especially when a new edition is required.

This shows how much care we take to make the Bible understood by the people who speak each language. A change of translation does not imply a change or corruption of the original text, as you must know. Your interlinear translations of the Quran in Persian, Urdu and other tongues, may vary, and new translations have from time to time appeared, but the original Arabic does not alter.

Muslim

The Urdu, Arabic, Persian, English, Turkish, and other copies of the New Testament are only translations. How can we be sure that they agree with the original? Even if they do, they cannot be quite as good as the original.

Christian

We have the original and constantly consult it, to be quite sure that our translations and explanations are correct. As you know, these translations are made by a number of learned men, not only Europeans but natives of the various countries being employed and consulting together as to the correct interpretation of every word. Moreover, we publish the original Greek text, and are willing to teach all who desire to learn Greek, so that they may read it for themselves. If you do not choose to take this trouble, as we do, is it our fault or yours?

Muslim

Not one of the Gospels was written by Jesus Christ Himself and St. Luke was not even by an eye-witness. Even if they have been preserved free from corruption, they are only traditions, corresponding to our ahadith.

Christian

The Quran itself was not written down by Muhammad, whom you call the unlearned (ummi) prophet, but by his companions, and the whole book was not collected till after Muhammad's death. Three evangelists' accounts (if we remember that St. Mark was St. Peter's scribe) were written down by eye-witnesses, and that by St. Luke was (as he tells us) compiled by him from the statements not of one eye-witness but of many (Luke 1 1-4). The evangelists were guided by Divine inspiration, according to Christ's promise (John 14:26). Moreover, do not forget that your own Quran, as we have seen, bears witness to the Gospel, and teaches that it must be received as having “descended on Jesus”. We have proved that it has not been lost or corrupted.

Muslim

There are Apocryphal Gospels; how do you know that only the present Four Gospels are genuine, and not some of the Apocryphal ones?

Christian

We know it just in the same way that we know that the Quran is genuine, and not some other book instead. The Four Gospels have been handed down among all Christians everywhere, and not a single one of the Apocryphal Gospels has ever been received by the Christian Church as a whole. We have studied the Apocryphal Gospels and know that they are of a later date than the genuine ones. Moreover, they do not in general contradict the genuine ones, but were intended to supplement them. The latest of them, and the only one that does in one matter contradict the genuine Gospels, is the so-called Gospel of Barnabas, which is known to have been forged considerably after Muhammad's time. In it the writer was ignorant enough to apply the title “Messiah” to Muhammad! (See Sale’s remarks in the Preface to his translation of the Quran.)

Muslim

Your Bible as it now exists cannot be from God (that is, it must have been corrupted), because it uses language about God which is unfitting: e.g. it speaks of God's hand, God's eye, and again and again says that He "repented". How can we believe that?

Christian

Such an argument is meaningless when brought forward by a Muslim: for we find exactly the same style of language used in the Quran, with this addition, that the Quran represents God as "annulling” certain verses, which the Bible never does. As to His “repenting” you tell us that one of His ninety-nine "most excellent names" is (Altawwab) i.e. “He that is continually repenting” or “relenting“ from the root of tawabah “repentance.” But it is no real objection either against the Bible or the Quran that such language is used in both books for it is clear that all human language must primarily have reference to appearances and to earthly life, and is only by analogy used to describe spiritual realities or even mental concepts. It is therefore inaccurate with regard to God, but is used because we have no better way of expressing our thoughts. "To repent" in Arabic is “to turn back,” and in reference to God denotes that He "turned back" from punishing, &c. It has no moral meaning as in the case of the repentance of sinners, where it denotes turning back from sin.

Muslim

No matter what arguments you adduce to prove that the Bible is not corrupt, there is a final one that you cannot answer. We know that it is corrupt, because in many places it contradicts the Quran. Our principle is to use the Quran as the touchstone, and to accept only what is in accordance with it. This is justified by reason because the Quran is God's latest and most perfect revelation written on the Preserved Tablet before the creation of the world. It is justified by the Quran since the latter is styled the “Furqan”.

Christian

There are several weak points in your argument. Before you can rely on it, you have to prove to yourselves in the first place, that the Quran is a revelation from God. This you cannot prove.

Again, the title “Furqan” (whatever be the meaning of the word, which is really Syriac and Chaldee adopted into Arabic) is not given exclusively to the Quran, for in Surah 21: Al Anbiya', 49, and Surah 2, Al Baqarah, 50, the same title is given to the Taurat. Moreover, instead of using the Quran to test the Bible, as you say, you are bidden in the Quran itself to test the Quran by the Bible for in Surah 5 Al Maidah, 47-51 we read: -------

“But how shall they make thee their judge, since they already possess the Law, in which are the behests of God? . . . Verily, We have sent down the Law, wherein are guidance and light… And whoso will not judge by what God hath sent down such therefore are unbelievers. . . . And in the footsteps of the prophets caused We Jesus the Son of Mary to follow, confirming the Law which was before Him; and We gave Him the Evangel with its guidance and light, confirmatory of the preceding Law, a guidance and warning to those who fear God; and that the people of the Evangel may judge according to what God hath sent down therein. And whoso will not judge by what God hath sent down such then are the perverse. And to thee We have sent down the Book with truth, confirmatory of previous Scripture and its safeguard".

And in Surah 10 Yunus, 94 the command is given to Muhammad himself to make the Bible the touchstone by which to judge the Quran, for there we read: "And if thou art in doubt as to what We have sent down to thee, inquire of those who are reading the Scriptures before thee."

Therefore your principle is contrary to the Quran itself. We have also seen that the Quran never asserts that the Bible has been corrupted, but acknowledges it to be the Word of God and says that God's Word cannot be corrupted or changed. And if you appeal to reason, your reason must prove to you from what has been already said that the Bible was not corrupted before Muhammad's time, nor during his life, nor has it been corrupted since. Finally, whether or not there are differences in teaching between the Bible and the Quran, it is certain that in many points in which you object to the doctrines of the Bible, the Quran confirms them, as indeed reason also does.

 

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