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The Bible has been changed is the common assertion of the Muslim.
This assertion that the Bible as we now have it has been corrupted(muharraf) is pursued by St. Clair Tisdall in
the style of argument presented in the form of a conversation between a Muslim and a Christian.
Introduction
"How I do pity you Christians!" said a
Mullah to a missionary, "you have no Holy Book now" The implication of this is that the Mullah
believed that the Old and New Testaments as we now have them are corrupted, and are therefore
unworthy of consideration. At one time this opinion was firmly held by all Muslims, and it is still
the general conviction of Muslims in all lands. In proof of this they assert that the
Quran states that the Bible has been rendered tahrif (muharraf). Others declare that,
on His Ascension, our Lord carried off the New Testament with Him into heaven. Hence it logically
follows, they argue that the Gospel which Christians now have cannot be the original one which descended
(from heaven) upon Jesus, the Son of Mary. In reply it may be said
1) The Quran nowhere states that Jesus took the Gospel up to Heaven
with Him, nor does any reliable tradition, this element therefore rests upon nothing but your mere assertion,
and as you were not present at the time you cannot give evidence
2) The Gospel that the Lord Jesus preached and taught by His
whole life was not fully written down then, just as the Quran was not collected into a fixed form
until after Mohammad’s death. To say that the Gospel was carried off to heaven is therefore absurd. The
All-wise God surely knows that men are on earth not in the heavens: hence He would not make such a mistake
as to send the Gospel up to the sky and leave men, for whose guidance it was sent, on the earth. At any
rate, the Quran shows that it was still on the earth in Muhammad’s time; else the Quran would not have appealed to
it so frequently.
3) Just as Muhammad's disciples remembered his words and so the
Quran was afterwards put together by Zaid ibn Thabit, so the Gospel in its four forms was
written down after and not before Christ's Ascension.
4) The meaning of Gospel is good news and this is contained
in an epitome in John 3:16
5) We are glad to know that Muslims confess that the Gospel
“descended on Jesus” and the Quran states that it was given by God "for a light and a guidance
to men."(Surah 5, Al Maidah)
Turning now to the assertion that the Bible as we now have it
has been corrupted (muharraf); the following is in the
style of argument presented between a Muslim and a Christian.
Christian
When was the Bible corrupted? Before Muhammad's time, or after it?
Muslim
Before it.
Christian
You cannot really mean that, for you are a Muslim, and to assert
that the Bible was corrupted before Muhammad's time is to accuse Muhammad of being a false teacher,
and to state that the Quran is untrue and a forgery, which is just what the idolatrous Arabs
in Muhammad's time did.
Muslim
How so?
Christian
Because the Quran which Mohammad claimed to have received
from God through the archangel Gabriel, asserts the authority and genuineness of the Bible
which was then in circulation among the Jews and Christians, and declares that the Quran itself was sent
down as being "confirmatory of previous Scripture, and its safeguard” (Surah 5 Al Maidah:
52) Now, if the Bible had been corrupted before his time, Muhammad must have been, knowingly or ignorantly
leading people who believed in him astray. If the Quran thus confirms a corrupted book, how can you
believe that your Quran has come from the All-knowing God?
Muslim
But you Christians do not accept the Quran and therefore
have no right to quote its evidence in defence of your own books. If you do not believe in it, why do you
rely on it as a proof of the genuineness of your Bible?
Christian
We do not rely on its testimony, but you do; and as you will not accept
any other proof, we adduce proofs that you must accept, if you are Muslims. Your statement
that the Bible was corrupted before Muhammad's time is contrary to the statements of the Quran
.Which are we to believe?
Muslim
The Quran does not state that the Bible existed uncorrupted in
Muhammad's time.
Christian
Then will you kindly explain the meaning of the
following, among many other passages that might be quoted:
-
Surah 10 Yunus 94.
-
Surah 5, Al Maidah: 47, 50, 51, 52,
70.72.
-
Surah 4, An Nisa: 50,135
-
Surah 7, Al Araf: 168.
-
Surah 3, Al Imran: 78.-
-
Surah 2, Al Baqarah: 70
-
Surah 21, Al Anbiya:
49.
These verses teach us that the Taurat and
Injil were then in the hands of the People of the Book, that they had been sent down by God, and that
they were carefully studied. The Bible is called the Word of God, and the Law is also distinguished by the
title Furqan which you deem the highest title of the Quran itself. Is this consonant with your assertion
that the Bible had been corrupted before Mohammad’s time? If so, why does the Quran represent Muhammad
as commanded to tell the People of the Book to accept the Quran because it confirmed “ what was in
their hands” Why is he directed to bid the Muslims believe in the “previous books” (the Taurat
and Injil ) as well as in the Quran ? Why are rewards promised to “the People of the Book" if
they continue to obey the Book?
Why are they warned that their hopes are founded upon
nothing unless they do so? Why are the People of the Gospel bidden to judge Mohammad’s claims by
God's revelation contained in the Gospel if it has already been corrupted? You must see that, by
attacking the Bible as it existed in Muhammad's days, you do it no harm but are really overthrowing
your own faith in the Quran and in Muhammad.
Muslim
But the Quran itself tells us that the Law at least had been corrupted
before Muhammad's time as it is said, for example, in the following passages;
-
Surah 2, Al Baqarah,
39,56,70,73,141.
-
Surah 7, Al Araf: 162.
-
Surah 5, Al Maidah: 45.
-
Surah 4, An Nisa: 48.
-
Surah 3 Al Imran: 64
Christian
Surah 3, Al Imran: 64 and Surah 2:39 prove that the Jews then had the
Taurat in an uncorrupted state in their hands else, how does the Quran say “they transcribe the Book”? Or
how could they “know and conceal the truth” if the Taurat had already been corrupted? For corrupted
truth is truth no longer, but falsehood. Or how could they “clothe the truth with falsehood” or
“sell it for a small price” or even “transpose the words (or letters) in their places” if they no
longer had the Taurat in an uncorrupted state? These passages therefore fail to prove your assertion; in fact they
prove the very opposite.
The
first two passages you quote inform us that in Moses’ time certain impious Jews mispronounced
a word which God had spoken, and thereby changed its meaning, for which they were at once
punished. But even these men are not charged with corrupting the Book. When it is
twice said that certain Jews in Muhammad's time (not before his time) used to “shift the words from
their places” such a charge is never brought against the Christians. So that, even if we admit that this
expression means what you take it to mean it relates only to the Law and not to the Gospel. But leading
Islamic commentators say that the meaning is that on certain occasions the Jews
denied that certain commands were to be found in the Taurat though they well knew they that they
were there. As an example a tradition is quoted that at Khaibar the Jews, when asked whether the Taurat
did not command the stoning of adulterers, denied it, though the command to that effect
is still in the Taurat, as they knew it was.
But they are not accused of changing the text and the
occurrence of the verses in question in the Taurat which they and we still have proves that they did
not strike them out. This explanation agrees with what other passages in the Quran
say about the sin of the Jews in concealing the truth while they knew it. Or, as Ar Razi
says,” they perverted the reading with their tongues" (Surah: 3, Al Imran: 72) not the actual text.
Another explanation which Ar Razi gives is that the Jews used to ask Muhammad questions and then
falsely report his reply. If so, it was not the words of the Taurat but Muhammad's words that they are
accused of “shifting from their places” Hence we see that the Quran does not state that the
Scriptures were corrupted before Muhammad's time.
Muslim
Well then, if the Bible was not corrupted before Muhammad's
time, it was certainly corrupted in his time, as some of the verses I have quoted prove.
Christian
In saying this you contradict your leading commentators and your
controversy is with them, not with me. Besides, you must remember that the Quran asserts that it was
“sent down to attest the Scriptures preceding it and to act as guardian to them“(Surah 2, Al Baqarah,
38; Surah 4, An Nisa: 50; Surah 5, Al Maidah: 50; Surah 3, Al Imran: 75)
It is strange for a Muslim to accuse the Quran of
attesting corrupted Scriptures and still stranger for him to assert that the guardianship of
the Quran was of no avail to hinder their corruption even in Muhammad's own time.
Muslim
By “attesting the Scriptures which preceded it“ is meant that
the Quran agrees with the genuine teaching of previous prophets, and shows the fulfilment of the
prophecies regarding Muhammad contained in their books, that is to say, in the Taurat and Injil by
preserving such doctrines the Quran acts as a guardian to those books.
Christian
Such is your
explanation. But if the Quran, as we have seen, attested the Scriptures which in Muhammad's day were extant
in the hands of Jews and Christians, and was constituted their guardian surely you cannot hold that
those Scriptures were at that very time corrupted or had previously been so. And, if the Quran then appealed
to certain passages in the Bible as it then existed in proof of Muhammad's claim to be a prophet
does not that show that in Muhammad's time the Bible was not corrupt?
Muslim
Well then, if the Scriptures were not corrupted before
Muhammad's time, or in his days, they must have been corrupted since that time, for they are corrupt, as
everybody knows, because they used to agree with the Quran and no longer do so. The Quran appeals to
its agreement with the Bible as one of the proofs of its inspiration; that is one meaning of
several of the verses which you have quoted. This it would not have done if the Bible had then been
what it now is, since it now contradicts the Quran in many important points and this is the reason
why we cannot accept your Bible.
Christian
Let us inquire in the first place whether it is possible
on the supposition that the Quran is a Divine Revelation, to believe that the Bible has been
corrupted since Muhammad's time, remembering that, according to the Quran, one reason for the
“descent” of that book and for Muhammad's mission was to confirm the Law and the Gospel. The Quran
itself asserts that God preserves the “Warning” which He has sent down (Surah 15, Al Hajr: 9)
and moreover repeatedly affirms that the Word of God cannot be altered by any one (Surah 69.Al Kahf:
26; 6, Anam: 35,115; 10, Yunnus: 65).
Muslim
But “the Warning” is one of the titles of the Quran
itself, and these verses all refer to the Quran and not to the Bible. We are quite ready to admit that the
Quran cannot be changed.
Christian
No doubt “the Warning“" is sometimes a title of the Quran,
but the same title is also, in the Quran itself, given to the Bible, as for instance in Surah
21, Al Anbiya: 7 and 49) and it therefore no more belongs exclusively to the Quran than the
title "Al Furqan” does, which in the latter verse is bestowed upon the Taurat which we
are there told was given to Moses and Aaron. If we take the promise in Surah 15, Al Hajr: 9 as applying to the
Bible as well as the Quran, we find that it agrees with Surah 5, Al Maidah: 52, where we are told that the
Quran is a safeguard to the Bible.
But in any case the statement that none can change the Word of
God is general and not particular and it applies quite as much therefore to the Bible as to the Quran, since in
Surah 2, Al Baqarah,:70 the Bible is called God’s Word. This is the logical
conclusion from the verses of the Quran which I have quoted. Hence, if the Quran's statements are
worthy of credence, it follows that the Bible, being God's Word cannot have become corrupted.
In this matter the Quran is in complete accord with the Bible (compare Isaiah 40:8; 1Peter
1:24; Matthew 5:18; Luke 16:17 Matthew 24:35; Mark 13:31; Luke 21:33) and you Muslims, although
doubting many parts of the Bible, hold that its teaching is to be accepted when it is in
accord with the Quran.
Muslim
Have you no better answer than this to give to the universal
assertion of all Muslims that your Scriptures have been corrupted?
Christian
It
is by no means correct to say that all Muslims hold that the Bible has been corrupted. Among ancient
commentators Imam Muhammad Ismail Bukhari, and Imam Fakhruddin Razi and others, were of opinion that it was
not corrupted. But even if all Muslims did agree in asserting the corruption of the Bible,
mere assertion is not proof, and we wait in vain for your proofs. Even a well-supported tradition (Hadith)
is not deemed by learned Muslims worthy of acceptance if it is contrary to the Quran and this
assertion of the corruption of the Bible is contrary to it.
Muslim
Apart from the Quran, which you do not accept, what evidence
have you that the Bible has not been corrupted since Muhammad's time?
Christian
We have in abundance both the kinds of evidence which you
Muslims consider admissible both 1) “aqli”- evidence from Reason and 2) naqli -
evidence based upon Testimony. I shall briefly mention a few proofs of each kind.
Commencing with Aqli evidence ….….
What possible object would either Jews or Christians have had in endeavouring to corrupt their own
Scriptures? In Revelation 21: 18, 19, a terrible penalty is denounced upon those who add to or take away anything
from God's Book. The Jews also were commanded to avoid this sin (Deuteronomy 4:2, 12:32;
Proverbs 30:5, 6). By corrupting their own Scriptures and still continuing to believe
in them (if that were possible), or at least to hand them down to their descendants as God's Word, the People of
the Book would be destroying both themselves and their children, and that too without any hope of gain.
Moreover, long before Muhammad's time the Jews were in the habit of numbering even the words and letters of
their Holy Books, and this they still do. How then can they be accused of corrupting them?
Muslim
Their object in altering the Old Testament, and that of Christians in
corrupting the New was doubtless to strike out all prophecies relating to Muhammad.
Christian
Why? What did they hope to gain by doing so? If
such prophecies were to be found in the Bible, why did they not accept Muhammad? By becoming Muslims
they would have shared in the spoils promised to the Muslims, and given to them when they conquered
and plundered Persia, Syria, Palestine, Egypt, and many other countries. They must have been tempted
to insert prophecies of Muhammad rather than to eliminate them. By becoming Muslims they would have
escaped from persecution, from slaughter at Muhammad's hands, and from all the suffering
which has ever since been the lot of zimmis.
Why should they, by striking out such prophecies (if any existed), have
doomed themselves and their children to sufferings here and hereafter? But you Muslims answer your own charge
against both Jews and Christians by asserting that both in the Old and in the New Testament as they
at present exist there are still to be found many clear prophecies of Muhammad's coming. If so many
have been left in, why do you accuse us of striking out a few?
Muslim
Another reason was to insert passages in support of the false doctrines
and evil practice that you had adopted, and to strike out those which were contrary to them.
Christian
How can that be, when the Taurat and Injil as they exist at present so
distinctly forbid man practices THAT oppose many doctrines held by some Jews and
Christians? For instance, the Jews are noted for usury, which is forbidden (Exodus 22:25; Leviticus:
25: 35-37) so too, idolatry is forbidden to Christians (Revelation 21:8), yet, if any misguided
Christians practise and justify it, they do not try to alter the Bible which so severely condemns
idolaters.
Muslim
Let me hear your other proofs.
Christian
The Jews and Christians could not have altered their
Scriptures in or after Muhammad’s time, even had they all been seized with madness and desired to do
so for they were already spread over a large part of the world, and could not meet together to agree
upon corrupting the Bible. Had they altered it without collusion, their alterations would
have differed from one another and been readily detected. Both Christians and Jews were then to be found in every
part of Europe, in India, Persia, Mesopotamia, Armenia, Asia Minor, Syria, Palestine, Arabia,
Ethiopia, Egypt, and throughout the whole of the north of Africa. Jews and Christians were hostile
to one another, and, if either party had endeavoured to alter the text of the Bible, the other party would
have detected and exposed the crime by producing the original. Yet the Jews have always accepted the
same Hebrew Old Testament as that which we do, and all Christians accept the same Greek New Testament.
Moreover, then as now Christians were divided into many sects,
as the Quran testifies (Surah 5, Al Maidah: 17), which often oppressed one another. It was
obviously impossible for them therefore to conspire together to corrupt the Bible. You will
in some measure understand this when you consider whether or not it would be possible for the
Muslims (Sunni’s. Shiites, Wahhabis, and all their other sects) to agree together to corrupt
the text of the Quran, and to accept the corrupted form of the book.
Again, the
Quran informs us (Surah 3, Al Imran: 109,110) that "Among the People of the Book is an upright folk
. . . and these are of the righteous." If so, they would not have permitted, without a protest, such
a crime as the corrupting of the Holy Scriptures. Is this statement of the Quran true or false? If true, is
not your assertion impossible?
In Muhammad's time, and later, not a few Jews and Christians, in
many different lands which were conquered by the Muslims, embraced Islam through fear or for other reasons.
If the Jews and Christians had conspired together to corrupt the Bible, surely some of these
converts would have been able to produce unaltered copies of the Holy Books wherewith to
convict the perpetrators of their crime. Yet neither in ancient times nor at present do we hear of a
single such copy having been brought forward. The Kitabu’l Aghani relates of Waraqah
ibn Naufal (who had once been for a time a Christian, and who knew both the Christian and the
Jewish Scriptures, at least to some extent) that in Muhammad's lifetime he used to copy from the
Gospel whatever he pleased. He at least would have been able to prove the corruption of the Scriptures,
had it occurred in his time. But he brought no such charge against either Jews or
Christians.
Therefore from the aqli part of evidence on the subject
it follows that the Scriptures cannot have been corrupted after Muhammad's time; and we have
previously proved that they cannot have been corrupted in or before his time. We conclude
therefore that they are still uncorrupted.
Muslim
Well, what are your (naqli) proofs? - Evidence based on
testimony
Christian
There are many but it will be sufficient to adduce only a few of the
chief of them, any one of which by itself is a sufficient refutation of the charge which you bring against
us.
We possess a number of Greek manuscript copies of the Bible,
which were copied from still earlier manuscripts long before Mohammad’s time. It is from
these that the printed Greek text of both the Old and New Testaments is taken. This enables us to know what
the text of the Bible was in the hands of the Christians of Muhammad's day, and to prove that it was the same
Bible that we now have. These old MSS. may be seen by any of you who wish to examine them. The principal of
these manuscripts are.
1) The Sinaitic (Codex Sinaitucus), written in the
middle of the fourth century, about 270 years before the Hijrah of Muhammad. It contains the
whole of the New Testament and a large part of the Old and is preserved in the British Museum,
London.
2) The Alexandrian (Codex Alexandrius) written early in
the fifth century, more than 200 years before the Hijrah. It contains the whole Bible, except a few pages
that have been lost, and is in the British Museum, London.
3) The Vatican (Codex Vaticanus) written early in the
fourth century, nearly 300 years before the Hijrah. It contains the whole Bible, though the
latter part of the New Testament (from Hebrews. 9::14} is written in a later hand, and is in the Vatican
Library at Rome.
4) Codex Ephriemi written early in the fifth century or about
200 years before the Hijrah. It is fragmentary, and
contains pages from each book of the New Testament and fragments of the Old. It is kept in the National
Library at Paris.
Muslim
How do you know that these manuscripts are as ancient
as you say they are? What proofs have you that they were not written in quite recent times? How
could paper last all these centuries?
Christian
All these old manuscripts are written on parchment, not on
paper, and their great age is evident at a glance. This also accounts for the loss of
some pages from some of them. They are written in very old Greek characters (Unicals) which are different from
later Greek writing (Cursive) as is the modern Arabic character different from the ancient Cufic,
which we find on old coins. Scholars have made a special study of this; and it is well known that the
Modern Greek writing itself, which is far more recent, came into use before Muhammad's time.
Scholarly believers and unbelievers alike, are agreed as to the fact that these manuscripts were
written not later than the dates which I have mentioned (in the text or notes), though it is
acknowledged that some of them may be still more ancient than I have said. We have plenty of other MSS. dating
from about Muhammad's time and onward, the writing of which is quite different.
Muslim
You have said nothing about the Hebrew Old Testament.
We have no manuscripts of the Hebrew text which is as ancient as
the Greek ones mentioned above, but we know from Josephus and other historians that the Greek translation
of the Old Testament (the Septuagint) was made from the Hebrew between 250 and 200 years
before Christ, that is between 872 and 822, many years before the Hijrah, and every one knows
that a translation must be more recent than the original from which it is made. We have also other
translations of the Old Testament made centuries before Muhammad’s time, and of these I shall soon speak.
Besides this, we have the Samaritan Pentateuch in Hebrew, but in very ancient characters. This was
preserved by the Samaritans, enemies of the Jews, from the time of the Babylonian Captivity under
Nebuchadnezzar. The modern Samaritans still keep it safe, and have even an ancient translation (The
Samaritan Targum) of it in a later form of their own spoken language, that is to say, into the
language they used to speak hundreds of years before they learned to speak Arabic.
Muslim
Have you any other proof that the Bible has not been corrupted
since Muhammad's time?
Christian
Our second proof is afforded by the existence of versions of the
Bible which were made ages before Muhammad's birth. These languages have long ceased to be spoken.
We have the translations of the Bible into them. The principal of these
ancient versions are:
(1) The Septuagint (Greek), which I have already
mentioned.
(2) Three versions of the New Testament and one of the Old into
Syriac. Of these, two are of especial value. The first of these is called the Curetonian from
the name of the discoverer of the ancient manuscript which contains it. This version was made at its
latest in the second century after Christ the manuscript was written in the fifth century. The second
is the Peshitta, made at its latest in the third
century: the oldest manuscript which we have was written in the fifth century. Even the third, or the
Philoxenian version, was made long before Mohammad’s time, in 508 A.D.
(3) Three Coptic versions: the Buhairic, made in the
second or third century; the Sahidic, and the Bashmuric or Middle Egyptian, both probably of the
same date. These three Coptic versions are in the three chief dialects of ancient Egypt.
(4) Two Latin versions; one the Old Latin, made in the
second century. We have manuscripts of its remains which date from the fourth and fifth centuries.
The other is the Vulgate, a more correct translation made by Jerome
A.D. 383-5 He translated the Old Testament from the Hebrew, whereas the Old Latin was translated from the
Greek version. The oldest manuscript Vulgate was written before A.D. 546.
(5) The Ancient Armenian, was made by Mesrob and
published in A.D.436 just 186 years before the Hijrah
(6) The Gothic, made by Ulphilas, who died in A.D.381. The
manuscripts of it date from the fifth to the middle of the sixth century.
(7) The Ethiopic, made by Frumentius in the fourth
century
(8) Several Aramaic versions of the Old Testament made by
Jews in the second and third centuries. The Targum of Onkelos being the most famous of these
which dates from the end of the third century.
Muslim
How do you know all these dates?
Christian
From
history in many cases, and in others from finding quotations from these versions in writers
who lived at the periods we have mentioned. No one can quote a book before written.
Muslim
Have you any further proofs?
Christian
Only two more that need be mentioned. One, the third proof, is that we
have a vast number of verses quoted from the Bible in the works of early Greek, Latin, Syrian, and
even Armenian writers, all of who lived before Muhammad's time, and whose dates are perfectly well known.
These quotations are so numerous that we could reconstruct nearly the whole New Testament and
much of the Old from them, if we had lost all our ancient manuscripts and versions
The fourth proof is afforded by ancient catalogues of the books of the
Old and New Testaments. Six of these, all drawn up before Muhammad's time and some many centuries
before him, contain the names of all the books of the Bible that we now have. The most ancient of all, the
Muratorian Fragment on the Canon, is torn at both ends, but it contains just the same list of books
that our present Bibles do. It dates from the second century.
Muslim
You Christians seem to have taken a lot of trouble in order to refute
our objections.
No amount of trouble would be too much to take in order to remove
the prejudices which prevent men, for whom Christ died, from coming to Him for salvation. But it was
not to refute Muslim objections that we made all these investigations and many more. We made them, in the
first place, to satisfy ourselves lest we should have been led astray in religion. We did not wish to be in
any uncertainty about the Bible, upon which our religion is founded; and we are told in the Bible to “Prove all
things; hold fast that which is good “.(1Thess a lonians 5:21)
Muslim
But your ancient manuscripts and versions differ from one
another so much that you have thousands of different readings in your Bibles. How can
you be sure which is correct?
Christian
That shows how carefully we have collated
manuscript with manuscript and version with version, noting even the varied spelling of the same word in
different manuscripts. But the result of all our investigations is that all the varied
readings put together do not alter or render doubtful one single article in our creed.
Muslim
How do you account for these various readings? Do they not prove that
attempts were made to corrupt the text of the Bible?
Christian
Not at all; for, as I have said, they have not altered one single
doctrine or one single precept given in the Bible. The variety of readings arose in different ways.
The most usual cause was a mistake of the copyist, who often wrote from dictation. Another
reason was that certain words were sometimes written and spelled in one way, sometimes in another. Occasionally
also, when a note was written in the margin of a manuscript a later scribe in one or two
instances mistook it for a passage that had been omitted by mistake, and inserted it in the
text of the copy he made. But as we have so many copies we are easily able to detect such mistakes, and
distinguish the few verses which are at all doubtful.
Muslim
If the Bible is really inspired, why should it contain
all these variations and discrepancies? Surely God would ensure that in an inspired book there
should be nothing to present difficulties to an inquiring mind.
Christian
Very often what appear to us to be discrepancies are not really such.
If we knew all the facts of the case, we should see that there is no discrepancy at all in the matter.
The doubtful passages also are few, and all taken together do not affect one doctrine of the
Christian faith. The fact of the existence of so many earnest Christians in all ages since the
ascension of Christ shows that these difficulties have not prevented true and earnest
inquirers from becoming Christians. These very difficulties
are doubtless useful as a test to our earnestness
Muslim
What a blessing it is that in our Quran there are no such
doubtful verses as are found in the Bible!
Christian
If you will not be offended I shall show you that, whereas
there is practically no doubt about the text of our Bible, it is certain from
tradition that the text of your Quran is very far from reliable.
Muslim
Prove it, if you can: I shall not be offended.
Christian
Muslim, the Traditionalist in the Kitabu’z zakat tells us
that, since Uthman’s revision of the Quran, some verses which once formed part of the book
are no longer found in it. He says, for example, that at Basrah, Abu Musa Ashari said to 500
reciters of the Quran, “Verily we used to recite a Surah which, in length and sharpness, we used to
compare with an arrow. I have forgotten it, except that I have preserved from it the words…….. . . .
And we used to recite a Surah which we used to compare with one of the Sabuhat and I have forgotten
it except that I have preserved from it the words “0 ye who……”
In the Kitabu’r Riza, Muslim quotes from 'Ayishah a
tradition that the verse on Giving Suck was known at the time of Muhammad's death; but it is no
longer found in the Quran.
In the Kitabu’l Hudud, Muslim proves that the
verse on Stoning once occurred in the Quran and 'Umar was so firmly convinced of this that,
according to Abu Daud he swore by God that he would have caused it to be entered in that volume, had
he not feared lest men should accuse him of adding something to it. According to Ibn Majah (Abwabun Nikah)
Ayishah affirmed that two verses, one of which was this very verse on Stoning, met with a strange
fate. She says that they were duly revealed and written out, and that the manuscript was placed under her
bed; but that when Muhammad died and all his wives and friends were busy in consequence, some tame animal
(probably a goat) came in and ate it, and so these verses perished!
Again, the Shi’ite accuses 'Uthman of intentionally eliminating
from the Quran all passages relating to Ali.
The Ainul Hayat affirms that Surah 33 Al Ahzab was
originally longer than Surah 2. Al Baqarah, but was afterwards corrupted by the omission of
many verses.
It is not we Christians who say these things, but some of you
Muslims.
Muslim
Such statements are unworthy of credit, for they rest upon
unreliable traditions.
Christian
It is too difficult a task for me to decide between your traditions
which are reliable, which doubtful, and which false but fortunately the text of the Bible does not
rest upon tradition but upon manuscript authority.
Muslim
Produce the original manuscript of your Taurat and Injil,
written by the hands of Moses and Jesus upon whom they descended, and we shall at once admit that your
Bible has not been corrupted.
Christian
Before asking us to do that, you should produce the
original manuscript of the Quran, written by Muhammad, upon whom you assert that it descended
Muslim
At least we have no various readings in our glorious Quran, as
you have in the Bible.
Christian
You have not so many, though it would be easy to point out a few,
but as the text of your Quran is so much more recent than that of the Bible, as it forms a book so much
smaller, and as it rests entirely upon the authority of a single manuscript it is not strange
that you have so few various readings. In the Mishkatul Masabih chapter 3 we
are informed that, by the command of the Khalifah Abu Bakr, the Quran was “collected "
by Zaid ibn Thabit "from palm leaves and stones and
from the breasts of those who had learned off by heart" portions of the supposed
revelation. This took place in A.H. 14 Abu Bakr kept the manuscript until he died, and then
"Umar took possession of it this is what Al Bukhari says. Afterwards it came into the possession of Hafsah,
one of Muhammad's widows. But so many copies with different readings and so many discordant forms of
certain Surahs were repeated by men who had leamt them off by heart (the Hafizun), that Uthman some
years later caused Zaid with the assistance of three others to make fresh copies of Hafsah's manuscript,
and, sending these to be kept in different places, compelled those who possessed other copies
to give them up to be burnt. Some resisted, but in vain. That the new edition of the Quran thus published
differed from the first edition seems probable from the fact that, as Qustalanil says, after Hafsah's death
her copy was torn in pieces by Mirwan, governor of Medina under Mu'awiyyah.
The burning of all other copies shows that serious variations had
already found an entrance into the text, and this drastic remedy prevents us from comparing ancient
copies with one another. What Muslim (Kitab Fazaiilul Quran) and others tell us about the “Seven
Readings” readings prevalent even in Muhammad's time points in the same direction. Muslims assure us
that these were merely differences in pronunciation but this may well be doubted, for in the same book
Muslim tells us that Umar bin al Khattab was so much offended at the way in which Hisham bin Hakim recited
Surah 25 Al Furqan, that he took him by the cloak and brought him to Muhammad to complain of
it. After hearing both men repeat the Surah, Muhammad declared that both were right, and asserted that the
“Seven Readings“ were all alike admissible ! But according to Nisai, certain words (letters - haruf)
occurred in Hisham’s version which was not in what others professed to have learned from Mohammad.
Ubai is represented by Nisai as saying that the fact that others
repeated verses in a form different from that in which he had learnt them gave him quite a shock.
If our leading men had burnt all the ancient manuscripts of the Bible and compelled all
copies to be made from one which they had caused to be written, we too should have but few varied readings
in our Bible, but all scholars would recognise that no reliance whatever would be able to be placed
upon the text thus produced.
(The Bishop of Lahore writes: "I used to find the
following illustration effective. S uppose a master dictates a piece of prose to ten
scholars. Probably in each copy there will be one or more mistakes. But these are easily corrected
by comparison with the other copies, since the same mistake will not be made by many. If, however, all
copies are destroyed but one, there will be no admitted various readings, for no standard of
comparison exists: at the same time all proof of accuracy is gone. So we see that, the larger
is the number of copies preserved, the larger will be the number of various readings,
yet the greater the certainty as to the text, though this seems a paradox!")
Muslim
Why do the different translations of the Bible which you
now make into so many languages differ so much from one another? Why are you continually correcting
and re-correcting these versions if your original text is not corrupt?
Christian
They do not differ from one another to any extent, as you may see from
comparing them one another. We find that in some instances the earliest translators either used words not
generally understood, or, from not knowing the vernacular languages as well as they are now known,
did not make quite perfect translations. Hence we endeavour to perfect them, especially when a new edition
is required.
This shows how much care we take to make the Bible understood by
the people who speak each language. A change of translation does not imply a change or
corruption of the original text, as you must know. Your interlinear translations of the Quran in Persian,
Urdu and other tongues, may vary, and new translations have from time to time appeared, but the original
Arabic does not alter.
Muslim
The Urdu, Arabic, Persian, English, Turkish, and other copies of
the New Testament are only translations. How can we be sure that they agree with the original? Even if they do,
they cannot be quite as good as the original.
Christian
We have the original and constantly consult it, to be quite sure
that our translations and explanations are correct. As you know, these translations are made by a number of
learned men, not only Europeans but natives of the various countries being employed and
consulting together as to the correct interpretation of every word. Moreover, we publish the original Greek
text, and are willing to teach all who desire to learn Greek, so that they may read it for themselves. If
you do not choose to take this trouble, as we do, is it our fault or yours?
Muslim
Not one of the Gospels was written by Jesus Christ Himself
and St. Luke was not even by an eye-witness. Even if they have been preserved free from corruption, they
are only traditions, corresponding to our ahadith.
Christian
The Quran itself was not written down by Muhammad, whom you call
the unlearned (ummi) prophet, but by his companions, and the whole book was not collected till after
Muhammad's death. Three evangelists' accounts (if we remember that St. Mark was St. Peter's scribe)
were written down by eye-witnesses, and that by St. Luke was (as he tells us) compiled by him from the
statements not of one eye-witness but of many (Luke 1 1-4). The evangelists were guided by Divine
inspiration, according to Christ's promise (John 14:26).
Moreover, do not forget that your own Quran, as we have seen, bears witness to the Gospel, and
teaches that it must be received as having “descended on Jesus”. We have proved that it has not been lost
or corrupted.
Muslim
There are Apocryphal Gospels; how do you know that only the
present Four Gospels are genuine, and not some of the Apocryphal ones?
Christian
We know it just in the same way that we know that the Quran is genuine,
and not some other book instead. The Four Gospels have been handed down among all
Christians everywhere, and not a single one of the Apocryphal Gospels has ever been received by the
Christian Church as a whole. We have studied the Apocryphal Gospels and know that they are of a
later date than the genuine ones. Moreover, they do not in general contradict the genuine ones, but were intended
to supplement them. The latest of them, and the only one that does in one matter contradict the genuine
Gospels, is the so-called Gospel of Barnabas, which is known to have been forged considerably
after Muhammad's time. In it the writer was ignorant enough to apply the title “Messiah” to
Muhammad! (See Sale’s remarks in the Preface to his translation of the Quran.)
Muslim
Your Bible as it now exists cannot be from God (that is, it must have
been corrupted), because it uses language about God which is unfitting: e.g. it speaks of God's
hand, God's eye, and again and again says that He "repented". How can we believe that?
Christian
Such an argument is meaningless when brought forward by a
Muslim: for we find exactly the same style of language used in the Quran, with this addition, that
the Quran represents God as "annulling” certain verses, which the Bible never does. As to His “repenting”
you tell us that one of His ninety-nine "most excellent names" is (Altawwab) i.e. “He that is continually
repenting” or “relenting“ from the root of tawabah “repentance.” But it is no real objection either against
the Bible or the Quran that such language is used in both books for it is clear that all human
language must primarily have reference to appearances and to earthly life, and is only by analogy used to
describe spiritual realities or even mental concepts. It is therefore inaccurate with regard to God,
but is used because we have no better way of expressing our thoughts. "To repent" in Arabic is “to
turn back,” and in reference to God denotes that He "turned back" from punishing, &c. It has
no moral meaning as in the case of the repentance of sinners, where it denotes turning back from
sin.
Muslim
No matter what arguments you adduce to prove that the Bible is
not corrupt, there is a final one that you cannot answer. We know that it is corrupt, because
in many places it contradicts the Quran. Our principle is to use the Quran as the touchstone, and to accept
only what is in accordance with it. This is justified by reason because the Quran is God's latest
and most perfect revelation written on the Preserved Tablet before the creation of the world.
It is justified by the Quran since the latter is styled the “Furqan”.
Christian
There are several weak points in your argument. Before you can
rely on it, you have to prove to yourselves in the first place, that the Quran is a revelation from God. This you
cannot prove.
Again, the title “Furqan” (whatever be the meaning of the word,
which is really Syriac and Chaldee adopted into Arabic) is not given exclusively to the
Quran, for in Surah 21: Al Anbiya', 49, and Surah 2, Al Baqarah, 50, the same title is given to the Taurat.
Moreover, instead of using the Quran to test the Bible, as you say, you are bidden in the Quran
itself to test the Quran by the Bible for in Surah 5 Al Maidah, 47-51 we read: -------
“But how shall they make thee their judge, since they already possess
the Law, in which are the behests of God? . . . Verily, We have sent down the Law, wherein are
guidance and light… And whoso will not judge by what God hath sent down such therefore are unbelievers. . .
. And in the footsteps of the prophets caused We Jesus the Son of Mary to follow, confirming the Law
which was before Him; and We gave Him the Evangel with its guidance and light, confirmatory
of the preceding Law, a guidance and warning to those who fear God; and that the people of the
Evangel may judge according to what God hath sent down therein. And whoso will not judge by what God
hath sent down such then are the perverse. And to thee We have sent down the Book
with truth, confirmatory of previous Scripture and its safeguard".
And in Surah 10 Yunus, 94 the command is given to Muhammad
himself to make the Bible the touchstone by which to judge the Quran, for there we read: "And if
thou art in doubt as to what We have sent down to thee, inquire of those who are reading the Scriptures
before thee."
Therefore your principle is contrary to the Quran itself. We have also
seen that the Quran never asserts that the Bible has been corrupted, but acknowledges it to be the Word of God and
says that God's Word cannot be corrupted or changed. And if you appeal to reason, your reason must
prove to you from what has been already said that the Bible was not corrupted before Muhammad's time, nor
during his life, nor has it been corrupted since. Finally, whether or not there are differences in
teaching between the Bible and the Quran, it is certain that in many points in which you object to
the doctrines of the Bible, the Quran confirms them, as indeed reason also does. |